Re: Platonism
From: Nathan (ntspam2_at_netscape.net)
Date: 12/09/04
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Date: 9 Dec 2004 10:14:22 -0800
tchow@lsa.umich.edu wrote:
> In article <41b49da7$21$fuzhry+tra$mr2ice@news.patriot.net>,
> Shmuel (Seymour J.) Metz <spamtrap@library.lspace.org.invalid> wrote:
> <In <41b39de4$0$565$b45e6eb0@senator-bedfellow.mit.edu>, on
12/05/2004
> < at 11:46 PM, tchow@lsa.umich.edu said:
> <
> <>For example, in some context where you're studying ordered sets, it
> <>may be good to define an ordered set as a set equipped with a
> <>relation "<" satisfying certain conditions. The ordinal 2 would be
a
> <>special case of this, and so wouldn't be the von Neumann ordinal
but
> <>a set with 2 elements equipped with a total ordering.
> <
> <No. The ordered sets (1,2) and (2,1) have the same order type, that
> <given by the ordinal 2. In fact, any two finite ordered sets with
the
> <same cardinality will have the same order type.
>
> What I meant was, you might choose some set with 2 elements, equipped
> with a total ordering, as your canonical representative of the class
of
> well-ordered sets with 2 elements. There is nothing that "forces"
you
> to always choose the von Neumann ordinal to be your canonical
> representative.
I still don't see your point. You said that the von Neumann definition
of ordinals fails to capture some aspects of the ordinal concept. A von
Neumann ordinal is a well-ordered set with order defined by set
membership. Granted, many other sets with equivalent order relations
can be defined, but the differences between these well-ordered sets are
irrelevant to the concept of an ordinal. They're all models of the same
axioms, as it were.
Which part of the ordinal concept do they lack?
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