Re: Is 1+1=2 analytic or synthetic?

From: robert j. kolker (nowhere_at_nowhere.net)
Date: 12/31/04 

Date: Fri, 31 Dec 2004 18:40:38 -0500

Jesse F. Hughes wrote:
>
> So now *Hume* introduced the synthetic/analytic distinction, did he?

In a way. He said meaningful judgements are either matters of fact (read
synthetic a posertiori here) or relations between ideas (read analytic
apriori here).

Kant's entire analytic was in response to the skepticism raised by Hume.
If Hume had not written what he had written there would have been no
-Critque of Pure Reason-. Before Kant was smitten by Hume's skepticism,
he was a so-so natural philosopher for his time. His math wasn't all
that great but he did come up with a good hypothesis on the formation of
planets (the nebular hypothesis).

Bob Kolker