Re: OPPOSITE OF all coin sequences are computable to infinite length ?

From: Timothy Little (tim-via-n.i.net_at_little-possums.net)
Date: 01/08/05 

Date: 8 Jan 2005 03:51:50 GMT

|-|erc wrote:
> can you rephrase your proposition into the above form?

You mean a sloppy and ambiguous form. The answer is no, not in a way
that maintains logical equivalence.

>> Define a sequence <a_n> by a_n = P_n(n) + 1.
>
> For the sequence to be possible it must be emulatable by some
> function Q.

That's an assertion without proof. Prove it.

- Tim