Re: abundance of irrationals

From: Herman Jurjus (h.jurjus_at_hetnet.nl)
Date: 01/17/05 

Date: Mon, 17 Jan 2005 17:45:07 +0100

mueckenh@rz.fh-augsburg.de wrote:
>
> If the infinity existed, it might be possible. Consider an infinite set
> of similar objects. Or consider the set of all rational numbers. The
> set of natural numbers could never be actually infinite, [snip]

1. Are you saying here that (iyo) the set of all rationals is infinite?
And that that set -could- be actually infinite?
2. Are you saying that (iyo) the set of all natural numbers is finite?
Or: that it isn't a set? Or: that it doesn't exist at all (as a set)? 

-- 
Cheers,
Herman Jurjus

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