Counterexample for modular law for ideals?

daniel.wolff_at_csfb.com
Date: 02/28/05 

Date: 27 Feb 2005 18:22:24 -0800

If A is a comm. ring with 1 and I, J, K are ideals then
I\cap(J+K)=I\cap J + I\cap K, whenever either J\subset I or K\subset I.

Does anyone have a counterexample showing that the equality does not
hold if we remove the condition "either J\subset I or K\subset I"?

Thank you.
DMW

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