Re: generalized (riemann) integral

From: Torsten Hennig (Torsten.Hennig_at_umsicht.fhg.de)
Date: 03/29/05 

Date: Tue, 29 Mar 2005 07:12:44 EST

>suppose: {integral f(x)dx from 0 to <infinite>} = L
>where L is finite.
>can it be said, that given a real number, r
>{integral f(r*x)dx from 0 to <infinite>} = r*L ?

Hi,

if r>0 and {integral f(x)dx from 0 to <infinity>} = L,
then
{integral f(r*x)dx from 0 to <infinity>} = L/r.
For this end, substitute y = rx in integral f(r*x)dx from 0 to M and let M->oo on both sides of the resulting
equation.

Best wishes
Torsten.