Re: Polynomial map

From: Jannick Asmus (jannick.news_at_web.de)
Date: 03/29/05 

Date: Tue, 29 Mar 2005 16:49:14 +0200

On 29.03.2005 16:36, grimster wrote:
> does anyone know of a quick way to prove that any mapping K^n -> K is polynomial? map(K,n) is the ring of polynomial mappings.

If K is a field, than the assertion is not true in general.
Counterexample: K=R, n=1, f=sin.

Or am I missing any assumption?

J.

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