Re: Polynomial map

From: Nathan (ntspam2_at_netscape.net)
Date: 03/29/05 

Date: 29 Mar 2005 07:57:09 -0800

grimster wrote:
> does anyone know of a quick way to prove that any mapping K^n -> K is
> polynomial?

Since you explained that K is a finite field, this is pretty easy.
Given a map f:K^n->K, for each x in K^n there is a polynomial p_x (easy
to find) such that p_x(x)=f(x) and p_x(y)=0 for y different from x.
Now just add all these polynomials together.

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