Re: Possible proof of Gabriel's Theorem?

From: David C. Ullrich (ullrich_at_math.okstate.edu)
Date: 03/10/05 

Date: Thu, 10 Mar 2005 08:25:19 -0600

On 9 Mar 2005 18:57:37 -0800, "Jason" <logamath@yahoo.com> wrote:

>> Uh, right. The integral of f involves riemann sums involving f.
>> The integral of g would involve riemann sums that have g in them.
>> I wonder what the riemann sums approximating the integral of
>> f' would look like? Hint: they have f' in them.
>
>The mean value theorem has f and the integral has f'.
>Hint: Gabriel's theorem links the two!

I don't know why you're still talking about Gabriel's
"theorem". It's simply _false_ - there have been at least
two counterexamples posted in the last day or so.

>Huh?
>
>Jason Wells

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David C. Ullrich