Re: Mean-value property => measurability?

From: David C. Ullrich (ullrich_at_math.okstate.edu)
Date: 03/21/05 

Date: Mon, 21 Mar 2005 07:50:45 -0600

On Mon, 21 Mar 2005 12:31:24 +0000, José Carlos Santos
<jcsantos@fc.up.pt> wrote:

>Hi all,
>
>I guess that the subject says it all. I'd like to know whether or not
>every function from the reals into the reals which has the mean-value
>property is Lebesgue-measurable.

What do you mean by "has the mean-value property"?

>Best regards,
>
>Jose Carlos Santos

************************

David C. Ullrich

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