Re: Mean-value property => measurability?

From: José Carlos Santos (jcsantos_at_fc.up.pt)
Date: 03/22/05 

Date: Tue, 22 Mar 2005 10:14:36 +0000

On 22-03-2005 2:45, ArtflDodgr wrote:

>>This does not work. Take for example f(x) = r_i_0 where
>>x = sum_i r_i e_i; here {e_i:i in I} is a Hamel basis (over Q) and i_0 is
>>fixed. f is not Darboux because it takes only rational values.
>
> What if one makes more exotic choices for f(x) as x varies over a Hamel
> basis?

Please read Robert Israel's contribution to this thread.

Best regards,

Jose Carlos Santos