Re: One to One Correspondence

From: David C. Ullrich (ullrich_at_math.okstate.edu)
Date: 03/27/05


Date: Sun, 27 Mar 2005 06:57:39 -0600

On Sat, 26 Mar 2005 17:00:00 -0500, "Sanford Geraci"
<sageraci@hotmail.com> wrote:

>Since you can show a n:1 (n not equal to 1) correspondence between the set
>of Natural Numbers and the set of Even Natural numbers, why is it that the
>1:1 correspondece wins?

[guessing what we mean by this:]

Because the _definition_ says something about "there exists a 1-1
correspondence", not "there does not exist an n-1 correspondence".

Next question: why does the definition say that?
A: No reason, it's just a definition. The concept defined by that
definition turns out to be interesting.
Q: Why is it more interesting than the other definition?
A: No accounting for tastes. If you like the other definition
better go ahead and think about what it entails. (But make certain
to be clear about the fact that you're talking about a _different_
concept.)

************************

David C. Ullrich



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