Re: JSH: Critique means slow, and thorough
- From: "W. Dale Hall" <mailtodhall@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Wed, 30 Mar 2005 21:14:45 GMT
jstevh@xxxxxxx wrote:
W. Dale Hall wrote:
jstevh@xxxxxxx wrote:
... stuff deleted ...
Then coprimeness in the ring of algebraic integers does not mean coprimeness in the more inclusive ring.
This is incorrect. If R and R' are commutative rings with identity, R a subring of R', then whenever elements r,s of R are coprime in R, then they are coprime in R'.
But if you don't realize that possibility, and worse, assume that
you've included all rings where the two key properties hold, you
can have an odd thing, where you can prove "coprimeness" by relying on coprimeness in the ring of algebraic integers, and algebraically
find that two numbers are not coprime, and thus have the appearance of proving two different and opposite things.
Can't happen. Here's why.
Let r,s be coprime in R. That means there are u and v in R such that
ur + vs = 1.
Now, r,s and u,v are in R. R is a subring of R'. Thus, r,s and u,v
are elements of R'. The operations of R extend to operations of R', so the equation
ur + vs = 1
also holds in R'. Thus, r and s are coprime in R'.
That's correct, but can you now prove that for every case
a/b
where a is an algebraic integer and b is an algebraic integer, and a is coprime to b that you can find a construction
ax + by = 1
where x and y are algebraic integers?
Yes, and I've included a proof below. It relies on a difficult (for me) result that I believe is due to Dedekind: the finiteness of the class number for any number field (= finite extension of Q). I also use the existence and properties of the Hilbert Class Field (conjectured by David Hilbert, proved by Furtwängler)
If so I'd think that'd be a powerful argument against my claims.
Why don't you try?
So that there's less confusion, assume you start with a/b being the root of a non-monic polynomial irreducible over Q, as if a/b is rational that's trivial to handle.
Here's a proof:
Suppose r is an algebraic number, with irreducible polynomial p(x). Then p(x) is in Q[x], the ring of polynomials with rational coefficients, and is monic. Suppose p(x) is given by:
p(x) = x^N + p_1 x^(N-1) + ... + p_(N-1) x + p_N
where each p_j = n_j/d_j, with (n_j,d_j) = 1 [all coefficients of p are given in lowest terms].
If m = lcm(denom(d_j: j = 0 ... N)), then the number s = mr is an algebraic integer. For instance, the polynomial q(x) given by
q(x) = x^N + q_1 x^(N-1) + ... + q_(N-1) x + q_N
with
q_j = m^j p_j
has the property that
q(s) = q(mr) = m^N r^N + m p_1 m^(N-1) r^(N-1) + ...
+ m^j p_j m^(N-j) r^(N-j) + ...
+ m^(N-1) p_(N-1) m r + m^N p_N
= m^N (r^N + p_1 r^(N-1) + ... + p_(N-1) r + p_N)
= m^N p(r) = 0.
Now, this exhibits r as a fraction with an algebraic integer as its numerator and the (rational) integer m as its denominator:
r = s/m
Let F denote the field Q(r) = Q(s), obtained from the rationals by adjoining the element r (note that since m is in Q, it makes no difference whether you adjoin r or s to Q). Let O_F denote the integers of F (i.e., those elements of F that are algebraic integers).
Define I to be the ideal of O_F generated by s and m:
I = <s,m> = {x s + y m | x,y in O_F}LEMMA: If I is principal (meaning that it is generated as the set of all multiples g*f, for some (fixed) g, and all f in O_F), then there is an element g of O_F, with
s = s'g, m = m'g,
and there are u,v, elements O_F, with
us' + vm' = 1.
PROOF: Suppose I = <g> = { x g | x in O_F }.I = <s,m> = <g>,
so there are u and v in O_F for which
g = us + vm.
Since g generates I over O_F, we also have elements s', m' in O_F for which
s = s' g, m = m' g.
Putting these together, we have
g = u (s'g) + v (m'g) = (us') g + (vm') g
so
g = (us' + vm') g,
and since O_F is an integral domain,
us' + vm' = 1.
QED
The desired goal is then met: the algebraic number
r = s/m
is also
r = (s'g)/(m'g) = s'/m'
We see from the Lemma that there are u and v in O_F for which
us' + vm' = 1.
THE GENERAL CASE:
Note that I needed to assume I is principal in O_F to obtain this element g, which might be thought of as a gcd (greatest common divisor) of s and m.
Suppose I is not principal. This is where the finiteness of the class number of F = Q(m) enters into the picture, as well as a particular field extension called the Hilbert class field of F.
The idea then is that there is an extension field of F, with the property that the ideal I becomes principal.
The class number of F (or of O_F, its ring of integers) is the order of (i.e., number of elements in) a particular group, called the ideal class group of O_F. For F a number field (i.e., a finite extension of Q), this group is always a finite abelian group. If I recall correctly, Dedekind proved this fact; I personally don't know how to prove it, but I would be willing to bet real money that either Arturo Magidin or Bill Dubuque would know this.
Suppose the class number of O_F is k. Then the Hilbert class field of F is F', and extension of order k; for every ideal I in O_F, the extension O_F' contains an ideal I', lying over I, and I' is principal. (I have to admit that I am no expert. One source appears to give this result only for prime ideals; several state the result I'm using here)
Thus, we can take I = <s,m> in O_F. Construct the Hilbert class field F', and know that I' = <s,m> in O_F' is principal:
Then, from the above argument, we are finished, since the ideal of O_F' generated by s and m is principal.
Now, given an algebraic number a/b that is the root of a non-monic polynomial irreducible over Q, can you prove that you can find x and y such that
ax + by = 1?
A simple analogy that I've given before is to consider 6 and 2 in
the
ring of evens.
Bogus example: no identity element.
Not really, as in fact, that's essentially what happens with the ring of algebraic integers where people *assume* that given a and b coprime algebraic integers that you can always find
ax + by = 1
where x and y are algebraic integers, but that is never proven.
It's a BFC, where by assuming that coprimeness in algebraic integers proves global coprimeness, people assume that you can find x and y above.
No. Coprimeness is expressible in terms of an equation that has a specific form. Once that equation can be satisfied in some ring, a larger ring cannot change its validity.
It's a circular position, or can you prove otherwise?
Not circular at all. It's analogous to the question of divisibility: suppose you have three elements r, s and t of some commutative ring R, and also you know that
r = s t
as elements of R. Now, let S be a larger ring, containing R as a subring. We still have
r = s t
in S. Why?
It's because any equation that holds in a smaller ring does not cease to hold when the ring is enlarged.
I think that you may *believe* you can prove that without ever having seeing a proof and now with the challenge you can see that, or you can show I'm wrong.
You're wrong.
If I'm wrong here, then I really have to reconsider quite a few things.
Start your reconsidering at your earliest convenience.
James Harris
.
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