Re: Coprimeness - I think I'm confused, but I'm not sure
- From: Matt Gutting <matthewdba@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Fri, 01 Apr 2005 18:41:03 -0500
Bill Dubuque wrote:
Matt Gutting <matthewdba@xxxxxxxxxxx> writes:
In light of some of the comments in the JSH threads involving coprimeness and Z[1/2]:
If the definition of coprimeness is something like:
To say that 'p and q are coprime in a ring' is to say 'there exist a,b in the ring with ap + bq = 1'
Yes, that is probably the most common definition of 'coprime' but be aware there are also many others in use, see my post [1],
then wouldn't 2 and 4 (or any powers of 2) be coprime in Z[1/2]? Or, more strongly, are any 2 (non-zero) rationals coprime in Q?
Yes a unit (invertible) elt is always coprime to any other elt for every notion of coprime I'm aware of. E.g. it is true for the above notion since a c = 1 => a c + b 0 = 1
--Bill Dubuque
[1] http://groups-beta.google.com/group/sci.math/msg/26729f0cd82b5866 http://google.com/groups?selm=y8z4qyo4oay.fsf@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
Thanks Bill. I think I have it straight.
Matt .
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