Re: Coprimeness - I think I'm confused, but I'm not sure
- From: David Rosoff <rosoff@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Sat, 2 Apr 2005 13:22:49 -0800
On Fri, 1 Apr 2005, Matt Gutting wrote:
Arturo Magidin wrote:In article <1112387619.8214cb7fca92c72ca9857edb4554270a@teranews>, Matt Gutting <matthewdba@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
In light of some of the comments in the JSH threads involving coprimeness and Z[1/2]:
If the definition of coprimeness is something like:
To say that 'p and q are coprime in a ring' is to say 'there exist a,b in the ring with ap + bq = 1'
This is true in rings with 1.
Okey dokey. I guess it's difficult for me to work with rings lacking a unit element because the books I've used (Herstein, and Rotman), while mentioning that "not all mathematicians insist that a ring contain a unit element", do in fact insist for the purposes of the book that rings be required to have a unit element.
You wouldn't know of a (beginning grad-level) book that discussed the differences between rings with and without unit element?
Check out Harry C. Hutchins' book, "Examples of Commutative Rings." There is a shortish section about rings without 1. I agree with Dale Hall's sentiment, expressed in one of the JSH threads, that not having a 1 makes ideals turn stupid. For example, in such a ring, maximal ideals need not be prime. Let R = 2Z, M = 4Z. Then M is a maximal ideal, but it is not prime (2*2 is in M).
The book is also quite good for one who wants more familiarity with the menagerie of commutative rings, especially the differences between Noetherian and non-Noetherian rings. I particularly liked the example of a ring R of Krull dimension 1 such that R[x] has Krull dimension 3. Unfortunately I don't remember the construction.
HTH,
-dave
.
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