Re: Where do I begin?

Wouldn't the squeeze theorem work?

For sufficiently large n we have (1-e) log n < log n + cos n <
(1+e) log n for any
e > 0. (since log n -->00 and |cos n| is bounded)

But sum (-1)^n /( (1-e) log n) and sum (-1)^n /( (1+e) log n)
both converge. They
are alternating series, uniformly decreasing and the n'th term goes to
0.

.

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