Re: complex integral
- From: "G. A. Edgar" <edgar@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Fri, 29 Apr 2005 11:05:58 -0400
In article
<22604940.1114784972392.JavaMail.jakarta@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
mark12345 <enphinion@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
> Hi
>
> If you have an integral of the function f(z)=1/(z(z+1)) , (z is complex)over
> any non-closed contour that goes from +1 to +i, (avoiding 0, -1), then can
> the fundametal theorem of calculus be used to just say that the solution is
> just F(i)- F(1), i.e. the difference of the endpoints, where F'(z)=f(z)?
>
> thank you
You can if that function F is analytic in the plane minus {0,-1}.
Or, indeed, if that function F is analytic in a domain containing
your contour.
--
G. A. Edgar http://www.math.ohio-state.edu/~edgar/
.
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