Re: abundance of irrationals!)
- From: "*** T. Winter" <***.Winter@xxxxxx>
- Date: Mon, 2 May 2005 00:45:41 GMT
In article <fb701d3c.0505010515.44bf8741@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> mueckenh@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx (W. Mueckenheim) writes:
....
> I caught the wrong line erroneously. In the next line you said
> something about all n > n_0. This assertion was wrong: You have not
> *all* n available.
But that statement you make the common definition of lim{n->oo} 1/n = 0
wrong. On the other hand you allow that limit, so what is your definition?
--
*** t. winter, cwi, kruislaan 413, 1098 sj amsterdam, nederland, +31205924131
home: bovenover 215, 1025 jn amsterdam, nederland; http://www.cwi.nl/~***/
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