Re: proof help




> Of course there is a quick advanced way: use Mean Value Theorem.

Okay I think that helps, is this what you had in mind for using the MVT:

Let f(x) = cos(x)

By the MVT, there exists an x0 s.t.

f'(x0) = [f(b) - f(a)] / (b-a) for any [a, b] contained in R.

Then since |f'(x)| <= 1, we have

| [f(b) - f(a)] / (b-a) | <= 1.

==>

| f(b) - f(a) | <= |b - a|



.



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