Re: measurable set

On 10-05-2005 4:06, Tim wrote:

Let E be a subset of R^n with finite measure. Asume m*(E) is equal to

sup{m(F) | F compact and F is a subset of E}

show E is measurable. 

Since you're assuming that E has finite measure, of course it is
measurable.

Best regards,

Jose Carlos Santos
.