Sets of measure 0 question...
- From: "James" <James545@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 12 May 2005 08:20:50 -0400
Hi, I'm having trouble with the following :
Prove that a set A in R has measure 0 if and only if there
exists a countable collection of open intervals the sum of whose lengths
is finite such that each point of A belongs to infinitely many of
the intervals.
(I can do the forward implication pretty easily if A is a countable set, but
not in general)
Any thoughts?
James
.
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