'Navie set theory': why when S(x) is (x = x), the specified x's do not constitue a set?



I"m reading 'Naive Set Theory' and the end of Section 3 there is a
following sentence:

[quote]
In case S(x) is (x \notin x), or in case S(x) is (x = x), the specified
x's do not constitute a set.
[quote]

The first one, (x \notin x) is Russell's Paradox, that one I
understand. I"m not clear what's wrong with the second one, (x = x).
Seems like this is tautology, always true. So if I have something like

B = { x \in A : x = x }

then B = A, since (x = x) is valid for all x's in A.

I assume I'm missing something, but what?

TIA.

.



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