Re: 'Navie set theory': why when S(x) is (x = x), the specified x's do not constitue a set?
- From: "porky_pig_jr@xxxxxxxxxxx" <porky_pig_jr@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: 21 May 2005 14:41:04 -0700
I'm using Latex notation which is fairly common in this group. If you
can't understand it, then don't bother to reply. Just don't make an
*** of yourself.
.
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- 'Navie set theory': why when S(x) is (x = x), the specified x's do not constitue a set?
- From: porky_pig_jr@xxxxxxxxxxx
- Re: 'Navie set theory': why when S(x) is (x = x), the specified x's do not constitue a set?
- From: William Elliot
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