L^1, L^2 convergence
- From: "James" <James545@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Wed, 25 May 2005 11:33:46 -0400
Let f_n and f both be in L^2 and L^1 (for all n). If f_n converges in norm
in L^2 to f, then does it converge in L^1 to f?
What about vice versa? If f_n converges to f in L^1, does it converge in
L^2?
I assume no for both, but I can't think of counterexamples. What are some
counterexamples?
James
.
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