Re: Orlow cardinality question
- From: imaginatorium@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
- Date: 8 Jun 2005 05:43:51 -0700
Tony Orlow wrote:
> In my College Achievement Tests, I
> scored an 800 out of 800 in math, and above 700 on three other
> Achievement tests.
So we understand you believe that your skill in mathematics matches
your confidence. Could you just clarify whether you believe that
basically the entire system of maths education of the modern world has
got it wrong, and you have uniquely identified the flaw. Or do you
believe that the many people here who have told you that the set of
finite integers (pofnats) is finite are misinformed - in which case
could you perhaps point to a textbook or university prof's webpage that
confirms your (mis)understanding?
> Let me reiterate. The set is infinite. There is a constant finite
> difference between any two successive members. Therefore the set
> contains infinite values.
"Therefore"? No-one seems to accept this "therefore" except you.
Consider the sequence of partial sums of sigma(n=0,oo)(1), viz: 1, 2,
3, 4, 5, ...
Your argument about "constant finite difference" implies that this
sequence diverges (in careful mathspeak) or "equals infinity" in
sloppyese. No-one disagrees. There is plainly no finite limit (in
either the technical or non-technical sense) to this sequence of finite
values. If you believed that somehow the limit must always be a member
of the set, then again you would have shown the odd situation that a
set of elements with a particular property (being a pofnat) included at
least one element that didn't. But if you don't believe that the limit
must be an element of the sequence, where on earth do these "infinite"
members come from?
Brian Chandler
http://imaginatorium.org
.
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