Re: martingale betting system question
- From: David C. Ullrich <ullrich@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 16 Jun 2005 10:03:14 -0500
On Thu, 16 Jun 2005 15:19:32 +0200, Jean-Claude Arbaut
<jean-claude.arbaut@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
>
>
>
>Le 16/06/2005 15:12, dans d8rtr0$qut$1@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, « Dave
>Seaman » <dseaman@xxxxxxxxxxxx> a écrit :
>
>> On Thu, 16 Jun 2005 15:03:30 +0200, Jean-Claude Arbaut wrote:
>>
>>> Le 16/06/2005 15:13, dans llu2b1ddnfgoi4ppd5par45kfe1ahfm2si@xxxxxxx,
>>> « David C. Ullrich » <ullrich@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> a écrit :
>>
>>>>>
>>>>> Well, you could just *borrow* an infinite amount of money.
>>>>
>>>> Ooh, I can? Where? (Ya think they'd notice if I borrowed an
>>>> infinite amount of money and then only paid half of it back?)
>>
>>> That would mean ruin for casinos :-) Every guy would win
>>> with the 2^n martingale. Too easy.
>>
>> What difference would it make whether you pay back twice infinity or only
>> half of infinity?
>>
>>
>Oh, sorry, I answered the previous question :-)
>Yeah, you're right, no difference. But, you can give infinite
>money to everybody on earth, there is still no difference.
You still need to read more carefully. Yes of course if
everyone had infinitely much money then money would be
worthless. But Richard (Tobin - you should be more careful
about attributions) didn't say anything about everyone
having infinitely much money, he said that _I_ could
borrow infinitely much money.
>Infinite money leads to end of money :-) I mean, an infinite
>quantity of money would have an infinitely small value.
************************
David C. Ullrich
.
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