Re: An interesting problem



achava@xxxxxxxxxxx writes in article <1121884917.948488.59700@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> dated 20 Jul 2005 11:41:57 -0700:
>Hi group,
>
>
>I saw a cool problem on another newsgroup (Math) posted by a person who
>goes by the nickname of Quasn. I am posting a spoiler below the
>statment of the problem:
>
>An Interesting Problem
>
>
>Problem: Let f(x) = 1 + x + (x^2)/2 + (x^3)/6 + ... + (x^2n)/2n.

It doesn't make sense to me as written.

f(x) = 1 + x + (x^2)/2 + (x^3)/6 + ... + (x^n)/n! + ...
is the Taylor series expansion of e^x about x=0.

>Then f(x) != 0 for any real x.

Yes, in fact f(x) > 0 for real x.

BTW, there were plenty of blank lines in your article; it was your reader
that filtered them out on the return trip.

--Keith Lewis klewis {at} mitre.org
The above may not (yet) represent the opinions of my employer.
.



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