Fields as universal algebras?
- From: "Snis Pilbor" <snispilbor@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: 21 Jul 2005 06:44:18 -0700
Hi,
Are fields an example of a pathological thing in algebra that
doesn't really qualify as a special case of a universal algebra? The
problem is that the unary multiplicative inverse isn't defined on 0.
How is this usually handled? Or do universal algebraists just avoid
fields?
Thanks,
Confused,
Snis Pilbor
.
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