Re: Random Probability
- From: Johann Wiesenbauer <j.wiesenbauer@xxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Tue, 02 Aug 2005 16:13:57 EDT
> Hi all,
>
> I tried to look at 'Coupon collector' but I cannot
> find anything really
> comprehensive.. most said it is a classic problem
> with an obvious
> result :-p
>
> Anyway, What I need is
>
> the Probability of getting a complete set on exactly
> the Nth instance
> (ie, set was incomplete in the first N-1 instances)
>
> Can someone please help to derive and explain a
> general expression in
> terms of N and k?
>
> Thanks a million!!!
>
For topics like this you should look up D. Knuth, "The Art of Computer Programming" (more precisely, vol 2, p 64)
Here is the gist of it in my own words. Suppose that the sequence
a_1a_2a_3...a_n (*)
is "complete" (as to occurrences of the numbers 1,..,k), whereas
a_1a_2a_3...a_(n-1) (**)
is still incomplete. The probability for the latter event is
S2(n-1,k-1)k!/k^(n-1)
where S2(n-1,k-1) is referring to Stirling numbers of the second kind. In fact, S2(n-1,k-1) gives by definition the number of all partitions of an (n-1)-element set into exactly k-1 subsets, corresponding to the k-1 numbers, which actually occur. Furthermore, those numbers can be arbitrarily permuted in (k-1)! ways and the missing number can be chosen in k ways, accounting for the factor k! above. Finally, the total number of sequences of length n-1 is k^(n-1), which is the denominator of the fraction above.
The combined probability p(n,k) that (*) is complete, while (**) was still incomplete, i.e. the probability you were asking for, is then
p(n,k) = S2(n-1,k-1)k!/k^n
because a_n is the missing number with probability 1/k.
Johann
.
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