Re: infinity
- From: Dave Seaman <dseaman@xxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Sat, 6 Aug 2005 01:47:00 +0000 (UTC)
On 5 Aug 2005 18:31:22 -0700, snapdragon31 wrote:
>> Noon may be un-reachable in a physical sense, but this is not a physical
>> problem. It's a mathematical problem. The question makes perfect sense
>> from a mathematical standpoint.
>> Your final sentence above makes no sense at all. There is no such thing
>> as a "last ball". All that is necessary to show that the vase is empty
>> is to show that each ball is removed from the vase before noon and is not
>> subsequently replaced.
>> > Assume f(x) is an increasing function and f(0) > 0. Even though f(oo)
>> > is undefined but I am quite sure that f(oo) cannot be 0.
>> Why?
>> Dave Seaman
> Thanks Dave,
> This is a paradox because it is not a physical nor a mathematical
> problem but rather a logical problem!!!
Saying that it's a "paradox" merely means that the result is
counterintuitive. It doesn't mean there is actually a contradiction.
> Physically or mathematical it is not difficult to prove that the vase
> is not empty at noon. Mathematically, # of balls in the vase can be
> expressed by the equation f(t) = 9+9*log(1/t)/log(2) where t is the
> time in minute before noon. 't' can be 1, 1/2, 1/4, 1/8, ... 1/OO.
> f(1) = 9
> f(1/2) = 18
> f(1/4) = 27
> f(1/8) = 36
> Number of balls in the vase at noon is f(0) = OO. Try it :)
Incorrect. You are confusing f(0) with lim_{t->0-} f(t). The former is
0, but the latter is +oo. The former is what the problem asks for. Once
you get your notation straight, the paradox disappears.
> The statement: "All that is necessary to show that the vase is empty is
> to show that each ball is removed from the vase before noon and is not
> subsequently replaced." is a logical argument. Unfortunately, if
> infinity gets involved, this statement alone is not sufficient to claim
> the vase is empty before noon. The vase can only be claimed to be
> empty at a particular time t is when all the balls are removed at that
> time.
Incorrect. Change "at that time" to "at or before that time". Then the
time t=noon fills the bill.
> At t = 1, ball 1 is removed but ball 10 (the last ball) is added
> to the vase. At t = 1/2, ball 2 is removed but ball 20 (the new last
> ball) is in the vase. There is no such time that all balls are
> removed. Therefore, the vase cannot be empty.
All balls are removed before noon.
> If the problem is changed to remove the last ball each time then the
> argument would be much simplier - ball 1 is always in the base.
If the problem is changed so that all the balls are in the vase at 11:00
and from then on balls are only removed, never added, then do you agree
that it is possible for the vase to be empty at noon?
--
Dave Seaman
Judge Yohn's mistakes revealed in Mumia Abu-Jamal ruling.
<http://www.commoncouragepress.com/index.cfm?action=book&bookid=228>
.
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