Re: infinity
- From: Kirby Cook <kwmcook@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Tue, 09 Aug 2005 22:44:56 GMT
William Hughes wrote:
Kirby Cook wrote:
William Hughes wrote:
<snip>
looks like we agree. What I also have is the concept of the state after all the finite steps. Call this state, state E Which balls are in the vase at state E. We do not know, this has to be defined.
I balk at "*all* the finite steps". Easy to say, hard to define.
You can only define state E by defining what happens at state E. This is done below.
Definition 1:
Let I be the union of the sets of balls added to the vase at any finite step.
Let O be the union of the sets of balls removed from the vase at any finite step.
Then 0 is a subset of I and we define the set of balls that is in the vase at state E is the set difference I\O.
Actually, I - O, right? And that is not at E (which has yet to be defined, IMO) but at any given specific step.
I like the notation A\B for set difference rather than A-B, as the
former makes it a bit clearer that the result of a set difference is
a set, but use whatever notation you like.
Ah. Yours is OK with me.
And there is no mistake. I and O are defined as unions over all finite steps and I\O (or I-O if you like) is by definition the set of balls in the vase at state E.
I suspect we've reached an impasse. "...at any finite step" is fine; I'm with you. When you make the leap to "...over all finite steps" without so much as a by-your-leave, you lose me. <shrug> I freely admit it is due to my own lack of undestanding. Sorry.
Kirby .
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