Re: infinity

Tony Orlow (aeo6) <aeo6@xxxxxxxxxxx> writes:

> Virgil said:
>>
>> Does TO claim that having a specific time before noon for the removal of
>> each specific ball is a wacky theory when it is a part of the statement
>> of the problem?
>
> If you are using all finite balls, then each has a specific time
> before noon when it is removed. Of course, at that time, many still
> remain.

Name one.

>> Which balls that are inserted into the vase before noon fail to be
>> removed before noon. Name one!

> It's the balls inserted AT noon that still remain AT noon. That
> moment is where n becomes infinite.

There are no balls inserted at noon. Every ball is inserted before
noon.

>> It is TO's wacky theory that removinga all the balls before noon leaves
>> some behind.
>
> All finite balls are processed at some point before noon. At the
> point when noon hits, you are processing balls at an infintie rate,
> and the finite numbers you are working with give way to infinite
> numbers.

Uh, no. When you reach the "infinite rate", you manage to place all
balls. All balls have specific numbers, and there are no more balls
to be put into the vase at noon.

It is all in the problem description. Only finite balls n are put in,
at 2^-n minutes before noon.

--
David Kastrup, Kriemhildstr. 15, 44793 Bochum
.

Relevant Pages

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