Re: INFINITY Revisited
- From: "Don Whitehurst" <whit0911@xxxxxxx>
- Date: 28 Aug 2005 17:59:38 -0700
stephen@xxxxxxxxxx wrote:
> Don Whitehurst <whit0911@xxxxxxx> wrote:
> > Peter Webb wrote:
> > <snip>
> >> > Don wrote:
> >> > Can the set of natural numbers be put in a one to one correspondence
> >> > with all of the digits of any specific decimalic number (including any
> >> > nonterminating rational or irrational number)?
> >> >
> >>
> >> Yes, trivially.
> >>
> >> 1 -> 3
> >> 2 -> 1
> >> 3 -> 4
> >> 4 -> 1
> >> 5 -> 5
> >>
> >> If you want a mapping between N and approximations to pi, pick
> >> 1 -> 3
> >> 2 -> 3.1
> >> 3 -> 3.14
> >>
> >> If you want pi on the list,
> >>
> >> 1 -> pi
> >> 2 -> 3
> >> 3 -> 3.1
> >> 4 -> 3.14
> >>
> > Here is where I get lost. Above in essence you said that the infinite
> > set naturals can "trivially" be placed in a one to one correspondence
> > with all of the digits of pi; and yet you now seem to be suggesting
> > there are not enough natural numbers in the infinite set of natural
> > numbers for a mapping between N the approximations of pi and pi, unless
> > pi is placed as an indivdual element corresponding
> > to some finite natural (in other words pi cannot be the last element).
> > Why not if the set of naturals is infinite?
>
> pi cannot be the last element because there is no last element.
> The set of naturals are infinite and so there is no last
> natural number to map to pi.
>
This is the same issue that I began to address with Timothy Little
about six months ago before I became too busy to gain adequate
understanding.
To me it seems like a perfect match for mapping. The digit string
corresponding to pi is infinite and has no last digit, the set of
natural numbers is infinite and has no last digit, the approximations
to pi are finite, pi is finite and has an infinite digit string with
with no last digit.
A B C D E
1 -> 3 -> 3. -> 1 -> 3
2 -> 1 -> 3.1 -> 2 -> 3.1
3 -> 4 -> 3.14 -> 3 -> 3.14
4 -> 1 -> 3.141 -> 4 -> 3.141
5 -> 5 -> 3.1415 -> 5 -> 3.1415
.. . . . .
: -> : -> : -> : -> :
Do you agree that the infinite naturals (column A) map in a one to one
correspondence with the infinite list of digits (column B) having the
same representation as the corresponding successive digits of pi?
Do you agree that the infinite list of digits (column B) map in a one
to one correspondence with the real numbers (coulmn C) {there are an
infinite number of such reals} associated with the infinite string of
numbers that start with "3." and place one additional corresponding
digit from pi to the right of the previous number?
Do you agree that the real numbers from column C map in a one to one
correspondence with the infinite naturals in column D?
Do you agree that the infinite naturals (column D) map in a one to one
correspondence with the infinite list of real numbers in column E ?
If the infinite naturals in columns A & D (A = D) map the infinite
digit string B having the same digits as pi, how can the infinite
naturals 1, 2, 3, ... not map the infinite list of real numbers
presented in columns E and C (E = C) and represented by 3, 3.1, 3.14,
...., 3.1415...?
> Don Whitehurst
.
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