Re: jars and marbles again...
- From: boi <boi@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Wed, 31 Aug 2005 14:41:15 +0200
On Wed, 31 Aug 2005 06:30:43 -0400, Torsten Hennig wrote:
>>Hi,
>>
>>Consider the problem of putting M identical marbles >randomly in J jars. I
>>was asked the expected number of non-empty jars. Using >indicator variables
>>I was able to calculate this expected number and the >corresponding
>>variance.
>>
>>Although this was good enough, I'd like to know if it's >possible to
>>calculate the exact distribution of the number of non->empty jars.
>>
>>Thanks,
>>
>>Boi
>
> Hi,
>
> let X be the number of _empty_ jars.
>
> Then,
>
> P(X=i) = C(J,i)*C(M-1,M-(J-i))/C(J+M-1,M).
>
> This can be explained as follows:
>
> First, choose i jars out of J which are meant to remain
> empty (C(J,i) possibilities).
> Then, distribute one marble on each of the remaining J-i
> jars. You are left with M-(J-i) marbles which can
> be distributed on the J-i jars
> (C(J-i+M-(J-i)-1,M-(J-i)) = C(M-1,M-(J-i)) possibilities).
> Now, put the possibilities together to get
> C(J,i)*C(M-1,M-(J-i))possibilities to distribute M
> marbles on J jars such that exactly i jars are empty.
> Finally, the total number of possibilities to distribute
> M marbles on J jars is C(J+M-1,M).
>
> The probability that exactly i jars are non-empty
> can be easily deduced from this result.
>
> Best wishes
> Torsten.
Hello,
Are you sure this reasoning is correct? Yes, you divide a certain number
of "correct" or "wanted" configurations by the total number of
configurations, but I don't think they those configurations are equally
probable, a necessary condition to apply Laplace's Law.
Writing out the case J=3, M=4, I find the distribution of X, the number of
empty jars, to be
P(X=0) = 36/81
P(X=1) = 42/81
P(X=2) = 3/81
clearly not corresponding to your values
P(X=0) = 1/5
P(X=1) = 3/5
P(X=2) = 1/5
I think you are making a mistake of the "I win the lottery or I don't, so
I have a 50% chance of winning the lottery" kind.
But I could be wrong myself. Any thoughts?
Boi
.
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