Re: 0^0
- From: Ben Crain <bcrain@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 01 Sep 2005 04:33:51 GMT
Ulrich Sondermann wrote:
The problem with 0^0 = 1 is that it implies 0/0 = 1 , therfore 0^0 should be 0 by definition.I almost agree that it is "useless" mathematics, in the sense that, as I implied in my original post, I can't imagine a realistic situation in which it would arise. If anyone else can, I would be delighted to learn about it! I "almost" agree in the sense that there are examples in mathematics in which things that, at first glance, appear to be only "abstract", with no practical importance, nonetheless eventually become very useful in practical applications.
if 0^0 = 1 then (0^0)/(0^0) = 1, then (0^0)/(0^0)=(0/0)^0 cannot be equal to 1 as 0/0 is not 1 or 0, it is indeterminate.
my 2cents worth, on this highly valuable piece of useless mathematics.
Ulie
As to this particular post: there is nothing wrong with (0^0)/(0^0) = 1. If (0^0) = 1, then certainly 1/1 = 1!
BC
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