Re: what makes it true?

In article <slrndhmun9.to4.tim-usenet@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
Timothy Little <tim-usenet@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> writes:
>mareg@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx () wrote:
>> Given that neither CH not not CH can be deduced from the other
>> axioms of set theory, this is not surprising! It is doubtful whether
>> the notions of "true" and "false" can meaningfully be attached to
>> the Continuum Hypothesis.
>
>And if it turns out that neither GC nor not-GC can be deduced from the
>axioms...?

Then we would know that GC was true.

I am not sure where this discussion is leading. The original question was
something like "Can a mathematical statement be true without it having been
proved?", and it still seems to me that the simple answer is yes.
Do you disagree with that?

I don't think many people would argue that FLT was not true in 1980.

Derek Holt.


.

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