Re: sin x / x tends to 1...
- From: "N. Silver" <mathelp@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Mon, 05 Sep 2005 15:37:16 GMT
Massimo67 wrote:
> Here is a non geometrical proof:
> because lim with x ->0 of sinx is 0
> and the same for x we can try to use
> De L'Hopital theorem, the derivative
> of sinx is cosx and it's limit is 1 while
> the derivative of x is 1. the limit of
> cosx/1 is 1. Because the limit exists
> then exists the limit of sinx /x and
> they are equal.
Nice job Massimo.
But how do you know
that (sin(x))' = cos(x)?
You know it because it
follows from what you
are trying to prove.
.
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