Questions about Cartesian product
- From: agapito6314@xxxxxxx
- Date: 5 Sep 2005 18:31:03 -0700
I have some questions about this:
1.- The Axiom of Choice guarantees a choice function from a collection
of sets, but it would seem that the existence of the Cartesian product
possibly requires more than one choice function on the same sets. How
can this be?
2.- It is intuitively obvious that the product of sets A and B is the
empty set if, say, A is empty. How can this be proved?
3.- In Royden's book he defines the product as a collection of sets.
Others define it as a set of j-tuples(e.g. (x_1, x_2,...,x_j)), which,
as I understand them, are not considered sets. Which is the correct
definition?
Any and all help is appreciated.
.
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