Re: sin x / x tends to 1...
- From: lrudolph@xxxxxxxxx (Lee Rudolph)
- Date: 6 Sep 2005 07:30:41 -0400
"N. Silver" <mathelp@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> writes:
>Lee Rudolph wrote:
>
>> From this it follows that, *if you believe* that sin
>> has a (non-zero) derivative *at all*, at any point,
>> then its derivative is cos. Can that belief be
>> justified without assuming the limit under consideration?
>> I suspect it can, by further geometric argument using the
>> helix parametrized by x \mapsto (cos(x), sin(x), x).
>
>If you have such an argument, maybe we can go
>back to the definition of derivative and prove the
>limit is 1. Please give your geometric argument.
My use of the verb "suspect" was intended to indicate that
I was making this up as I went along. I don't have any such
argument at the moment. If I think of one, despite all my
efforts to do something else today, I'll post it.
Lee Rudolph
.
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