Re: what makes it true?

Jim Spriggs <jim.sprigs@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> writes:

> Right; "an ordinal, as used in the proof of Goldstein's theorem" (with
> "as used in the proof of Goldstein's theorem" underlined three times);
> thank you for making that clear.

But is it clear? What is special about "as used in the proof of
Goldstein's theorem", and why, if PA can handle those ordinals,
doesn't the proof go through in PA? Surely these are the more
interesting questions?

.