Re: infinity
- From: "Jonathan Hoyle" <jonhoyle@xxxxxxx>
- Date: 9 Sep 2005 13:49:14 -0700
>> As the size of the set of finite naturals, it is also the largest
>> element of that set, and as such, it is finite.
This assumption seems to be at the root of your confusion, Tony. I'm
surprised that you can continue to entertain it since it is trivial to
prove that there are an infinite number of finite numbers: a simple
proof by contradiction that you have already seen will do.
>> If the size of the set of finite naturals exists, then so does the
>> largest element of the set, which doesn't exist.
Again, how do you justify this statement? It's not just false, it's
absurd. You offer no explanation other than hand-waving.
>> If all members of the set are finite naturals, then my proof applies
>> to each and every one of them, and shows that no one of them can
>> possibly ever have more than a finite number of predecessors.
It is true that every natural number has only a finite number of
predecessors each.
>> If a set has NO elements with a finite number of predecessors,
>> then it cannot be infinite.
I am having trouble understanding what you mean here. Each and every
element of the set of natural numbers can have only a finite number of
predecessors, but the set itself is infinite.
.
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