Re: infinity

Tony Orlow <aeo6@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
> My reasoning is not circular, O Infinite One, and if you continue to say that,
> then that continuation consititutes the main circularity of the discussion.

> Watch carefully:

> All finite values -> all finite differences -> finite value range

> Can you please point out the implication that points back to the beginning and
> causes a circle? Can you identify which of those two linear implications you
> disagree with?

Clearly the last one. You claim that the range equals
the maximum finite difference. There is no maximium finite
difference. Therefore there is no range.

Yes, the fact that all values are finite means that all
differences are finite. But if you define range
as 'maximum finite difference', then the fact that all
diffences are finite does not imply a finite value range.

You apparently have some other hidden axiom somewhere
that says that if the maximum finite difference does
not exist, then it is finite, but you have never stated
this axiom. Your theory depends on a lot on non-existent
objects, so you really need to formalize the properties
of those non-existent objects.

Here is a question for you Tony: is the following
statement true?

if x is a finite natural, then there exists a finite natural
y such that y>x

Stephen
.

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