Re: infinity
- From: Matt Gutting <tchrmatt@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 29 Sep 2005 16:19:25 -0400
Tony Orlow wrote:
William Hughes said:
Tony Orlow wrote:
David R Tribble said:
Tony Orlow wrote:
The range as maximum possible difference cannot be specified without specification of the bounds of the set, but in any case, the maximum possible difference is not infinite if no differences can possibly be infinite.
Can the maximum possible difference be unbounded if the differences between any members are unbounded?
I would say so, yes. The range of the finite naturals is an unboundedly large finite value.
The problem is that no natural number is unboundedly large. (Except for a sour natural number of course.) So the range of the finite naturals is not a natural number.
-William Hughes
For any given n in N, the value range in the set of naturals from 0 to n is n, so how can the range NOT be a natural number. The problem is that we cannot name any such largest finite. You say it doesn't exist. I say the range must exist where there are valures, but if we have no maximal value, then we have no maximal difference, and cannot identify the range, except to say it is unboundedly large, but finite.
If there is, as you state, no maximal difference, and if, as you have also stated, the value range is defined as the maximal difference, then it would seem to follow that there is no value range. Yet you deny this conclusion. Why?
Matt .
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