Re: 3rd Experiment |OR| Infinity
- From: pfntjux@xxxxxxxxx
- Date: 4 Oct 2005 06:09:25 -0700
>Suppose you have a giant vase and a bunch of ping pong balls with an integer written on each one, e.g. just like the lottery, so the balls are numbered 1, 2, 3, ... and so on. At one minute to noon you put balls 1 to 10 in the vase and take out number 1. At half a minute to noon you put balls 11 - 20 in the vase and take out number 2. At one quarter minute to noon you put balls 21 - 30 in the vase and take out number 3. Continue in this fashion. Obviously this is physically impossible, but you get the idea. Now the question is this: At noon, how many ping pong balls are in the vase?
At every step you are adding 10 balls and removing 1. This is the same
as saying that you are adding 9 balls at every step. If you repeat this
ad infinitum you end up with an infinite amount of balls in the vase.
Simple as pie.
The corresponding mathematical expression to find the number of balls
after the nth step is
10*n - 1*n
which is obviously the same as 9*n. To find how many balls are there in
the vase at infinity (or as we approach infinity, as you prefer) we
take the following limit:
lim n->oo (10*n-1*n)
Well, if you don't simplify 10*n-1*n, you get with an expression oo-oo
which as we know is *indeterminate*, and which I believe to be the
hidden cause of the debate.
In the other hand, if we simplify the limit to
limit n->oo 9*n
the answer should be obvious.
Oh, and please carry out the experiment with transparent vases. That
should help make evident that we are not getting any closer to
emptiness the more steps we take, and it should help with your friend's
phobia too (full reference:
http://groups.google.com/group/sci.math/browse_frm/thread/2ffb3c24245d7803/a80c935e2d7b1c40#a80c935e2d7b1c40
).
Cheers,
--Tech
.
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