Re: infinity




Tony Orlow wrote:
> Randy Poe said:
> >
> > Tony Orlow wrote:
> > > Randy Poe said:
> > > >
> > > > Tony Orlow wrote:
> > > > > Randy Poe said:
> > > > > > Your mapping is defined in such a way that there is no
> > > > > > x in X such that f(x) = X. This has nothing to do with
> > > > > > "largest finite". Your map, as you defined it, has the
> > > > > > property that no element x is in f(x). Therefore it's
> > > > > > pretty obvious without any references to "largest finite",
> > > > > > that there is no x in X such that f(x) = X.
> > > > > Not within the range of any given X, but in the overall infinite set, there is.
> > > >
> > > > Are you aware that if I claim I have a bijection from a set
> > > > A to a set B, then what I am claiming is that f takes
> > > > elements from set A and maps them to elements of set B?
> > > Sure,
> >
> > Good.
> >
> > > can you enumerate them all?
> >
> > Don't change the subject. If you are aware that this is a
> > requirement for a bijection, why would you claim that you
> > have a bijection from X to P(X) that maps things that aren't
> > in X to things in P(X)?
> I am not changing the subject.

Asking me to enumerate them all is a change of subject, since
the question is REASONING as to whether there is a one-to-
one bijective mapping which takes elements from X and produces
elements of P(X). Whether the map can be ENUMERATED is
irrelevant to whether it exists, and to whether REASONING
can prove that it does or does not exist.

> You want me to tell you the natural that maps to
> the last in the enumeration of the infinite set of subsets in P(*N)?

No I don't, since there is no last.

I've just picked one particular element of P(*N), the
set *N. I don't care where it appears in your mythical
enumeration. I just am asking if it appears at all.

> Fine, I'll
> do that, as soon as you tell me what natural maps to the last in the
> enumeration of infinite set of the evens.

There is no last, in either set. The question is whether
EVERY even is mapped by a natural, without any left out,
and the answer is yes.

Let n be any even natural. Then n/2 is a natural. See? No
discussion of "last natural" or "last even" needed to talk
about "every natural" or "every even".

> My request is no different from yours.

It's quite different. You have a map. I don't care about what
order your map produces elements. To establish whether it is
ONTO P(X), I just need to answer the question as to whether
EVERY element of P(X) is mapped. I really don't care about
identifying a last.

The equivalent request on f:N->E, f(x) = 2x, would be
"is every element of E mapped"? Again, order doesn't matter,
and certainly questions about nonexistent last elements
don't matter.

Do you agree that a bijection from naturals to evens should
map some natural to every even, regardless of the order
in which it does those mappings?

Do you agree that a bijection from any set X to P(X) should
map some element of X to every element of P(X), regardless
of the order in which it does those mappings?
> The subject is the relative ranges of two infinite sets,

No, the subject is the existence of a bijection.

> > there is no x in X such that f(x) = X
> There is no e in E such that f(e) = N.

Eh?

> That is, there is no even such that half of it is more than
> half the naturals.

I don't know what "half the naturals is". Do you disagree
with this statement? For any x in E, x/2 is in N. How about
this one? For every x in N, 2x is in E.

Once more for the slow-witted: If I want to prove that
a map f:A->B is not a bijection, it suffices to find
y in B such that f(x) is not equal to y for any x in A.

If I want to prove that a map f:X->P(X) is not a bijection,
it suffices to find y in P(X) such that f(x) is not equal to
y for any x in X.

I can do that, by choosing y = X.

If I want to prove that a map f:N->E is not a bijection,
it suffices to find y in E such that f(x) is not equal to
y for any x in N.

You can't do that. If you give me any y in E, I will tell
you that f(y/2) = y for the map f = 2x, and that y/2 is
in N.

See how that works? I don't talk about "last", I talk about
EVERY. That's how this REASONING stuff works. It's powerful
stuff. Stop avoiding it, it will save you a lot of time.

- Randy

.



Relevant Pages

  • Re: infinity
    ... > Yes, for your proposed mapping between N and P, ... the largest element would not map to the ... so our bijection never runs into any such endpoint and ... what is the last element in the mapping of naturals to evens? ...
    (sci.math)
  • Re: Integers -> Strings
    ... What I need is a bijection. ... But since they are different strings they must map ... The strings 'a', 'aa', 'aaa', etc., cannot be mapped bijectively into ... the naturals if your f is defined as f='a'. ...
    (sci.math)
  • Re: Well Ordering the Reals
    ... >> in my map to P, requiring something to map to N does NOT mean ... > naturals, Pwill contain all possible subsets ... Let's say they are uncountably long, without end, truly infinite. ... In reality, the power set is indeed bigger, ...
    (sci.math)
  • Google icosahedron problem the hard way
    ... mention of the "Google Labs Aptitude Test" and one of the ... the "Polya-Bernside Enumeration Theorem" which I didn't quite get. ... group elements instead of the subgroups. ... the entries in a table of 60*2^20 elements which map to themselves. ...
    (sci.math)
  • Re: infinity
    ... This is provably true no matter what X is, ... > fail to map any element of X to w. ... >> and derive a contradiction from assuming any natural mapping to ... How many significant bits do your naturals ...
    (sci.math)