Re: inner/outer measure

In article <1130340314.393830.196400@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
<eduardomdiaz@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:

> eduardomdiaz@xxxxxxxxx wrote:
> > I found an old message on usenet ("Q about outer measure"), and in that
> > discussion a poster mentioned that a set is measurable if and only if
> > the outer measure is equal to inner measure. i thought that was the
> > definition of measurable (although ive only been learning this stuff
> > for a few weeks now in self study). i saw the other definition of
> > measurable:
> >
> > E measurable if for all sets A: m*(E) = m*(A /\ E) + m*(A /\ ~E)
> >
> > how can i show that this def is equivalent to the outer=inner measure
> > definition I know of?
>
>
> I am still having trouble with this, can anyone help?
>

You could consult a textbook.
Hewitt & Stromberg, REAL AND ABSTRACT ANALYSIS, for example.

--
G. A. Edgar http://www.math.ohio-state.edu/~edgar/
.

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