Re: Well Ordering the Reals
- From: Tony Orlow <aeo6@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Wed, 2 Nov 2005 09:55:31 -0500
Daryl McCullough said:
> Tony Orlow says...
>
> >Daryl McCullough said:
>
> >> I've already given you my objection. Your ordering
> >> has infinite descending chains.
> >
> >That's because it's an infinite set, dingbat.
>
> You think every infinite set has an infinite descending
> chain? So you think that it is impossible to well-order
> any infinite set? Yet, you claim to have well-ordered the
> reals.
If one can, as you did, select an infinite element, can form a set by
considering elements finitely less than that element, then any "uncountable"
set has subsets which are "infinite" descending chains. If this countable
subset is considered an infinite descending chain, then how can one possibly
create a well ordering on ANY uncountable set?
>
> On the one hand, "well-ordering" implies that there
> are no infinite descending chains. On the other hand,
> your ordering has infinite descending chains. Together,
> these two pieces of information tell you that your
> ordering is *not* a well-ordering. Yet you claim it
> is a well-ordering.
I thought the set as a whole needed a first element. When you define
"infinite" descending chains using the finite naturals, well, that makes that
task on Hilbert's list simply impossible.
>
> What do you mean by that? You say it's a well-ordering.
> You admit that it has infinite descending chains. But
> the first statement contradicts the second. Why are you
> content with having self-contradictory beliefs?
I am not. Obviously, the concept of a well ordering on any "uncountable" set is
self-contradictory.
>
> >If that were a valid objection, then why would Hilbert and
> >Goedel even consider the idea?
>
> Because there is no (known) proof that the reals can be
> well-ordered, and there is no (known) proof that they cannot be
> well-ordered.
If one can take any infinite element, and count backwards as the finite
naturals, and call that an infinite descending chain, then there's your proof
that it can't be done, according to these definitions. Perhaps it's not a
"well-ordering" after all, but it is an important enumeration of the real
numbers. I suppose Ross's infinitesimal-based well ordering is not a well-
ordering either, since we can start at 1 and count backwards by iotas, and have
an infinite descending chain as well. Given your definitions, how can no one
have proven that it can't be done? It seems obvious.
>
> --
> Daryl McCullough
> Ithaca, NY
>
>
--
Smiles,
Tony
http://www.people.cornell.edu/pages/aeo6/WellOrder/
.
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