Re: Well Ordering the Reals
- From: "Randy Poe" <poespam-trap@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: 9 Nov 2005 11:37:48 -0800
Tony Orlow wrote:
> Randy Poe said:
> >
> > Tony Orlow wrote:
> > > Daryl McCullough said:
> > > > Virgil says...
> > > >
> > > > >Since TO's alleged "apparent bijection" is merely an artifact of TO's
> > > > >delusions, and has no existence in real mathematics, it is certainly no
> > > > >big thing in mathematics.
> > > >
> > > > Actually, I think Tony is thinking (in his web page) of an enumeration
> > > > of a dense subset of the reals. That is, for any two distinct reals r_1
> > > > and r_2 there is a real r in his set such that r is between r_1 and r_2.
> > > > He seems to think that this well-orders the reals, when it actually just
> > > > well-orders a countable subset.
> > > Well, that is what I am asking. How does one prove that such an ordered subset
> > > actually includes ALL the reals, rather than just the rationals or some other
> > > type of real? I don't think this enumeration misses one point on the line, but
> > > how do I prove this?
> >
> > You are asking how to prove a result which is known to be false. You
> > can't do it within our axiomatic system.
> Oh? Did someone just prove that a well ordering of the reals is impossible?
You are asking how to prove that the set for which you are
constructing a well-ordering is R.
This is a result which is false.
Declaring it to be false does not declare well-ordering to be
impossible.
- Randy
.
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