Re: Well Ordering the Reals
- From: "William Hughes" <wpihughes@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: 23 Nov 2005 10:16:10 -0800
Tony Orlow wrote:
> MoeBlee said:
> > Tony Orlow wrote:
> >
> > > Well, it sounds rather inconsistent, doesn't it, an unending set with a
> > > particular size which is infinite, but no infinite values or positions in the
> > > set? It simply doesn't make any more sense to me that the square circle.
> >
> > It's not a round square. Each of the members is finite. The SET is
> > infinite, because it has infinitely MANY members. There is not even an
> > appearence of contradiction in that.
> >
> > I don't think you are unintelligent as some people claim. But you do
> > have a major block. There are infinitely many natural numbers; there is
> > no greatest natural number; and no natural number is infinite. Children
> > understand this, non-mathematician adults understand it, virtually
> > every mathematician for the last hundred years and even for thousands
> > of years has understood it. Forget about the natural numbers, Euclid
> > understood that there are infinitely many primes. Forget Cantor,
> > Galileo understood one-to-one correspondence of an infinite set and a
> > proper subset.
> >
> > Kids will tell you; people who've never heard of set theory will tell
> > you; the study of mathematics will tell you:
> >
> > If there were only finitely many natural numbers, then there would be a
> > greatest natural number. But there is no greatest natural number since
> > you can always add 1 to get a greater natural number. And no natural
> > number is infinite since every natural number comes from adding 1 to
> > previous natrural number that is not infinite. To have an infinite set,
> > it is not required that one of its members be infinite. The set {0 1 2
> > ...} is infinite but no member is infinte. This is clear. But some
> > block prevents you from seeing it.
> >
> > MoeBlee
> >
> >
> The "block" that prevents me from agreeing with this false picture is an
> appreciation for the identity function between element count and value in the
> naturals. For every additional natural, the set grows by one and the element
> value is increased by one. As many elements as are in the set, that is the
> size, and also the value range, given the density of 1 element per unit of
> element value. Is this a block? No, it's an inductively provable fact. Why is
> it not accepted? Because induction is considered only to hold for finite
> values, and therefore this result is considered invalid in the infinite case.
> But, where you have an equality that holds inductively, it holds for all cases,
> finite and infinite. There is no point at which the infinite chain of logical
> implication breaks down, if the difference of zero that forms the basis of the
> equality is maintained in all cases. There is no reason to abandon this
> relationship when there are an infinite number of elements, and if it holds in
> the finite case, then there is no finite element that marks an infinite set
> anyway, and since that's all there is in your set of naturals, the set cannot
> be infinite, even if considered to include the entirety of its members. None is
> in an infinite position in the set. If this is a block, perhaps you should
> consider it a cornerstone.
Even if we accept your nonsense about induction and infinity, you
can at most demonstrate things for sets of the form
{1,2,3,...,N}
where N is a TO natural number. You cannot use induction to
demonstrate
anything about a set without a largest element.
-William Hughes
.
- References:
- Re: Well Ordering the Reals
- From: Tony Orlow
- Re: Well Ordering the Reals
- From: Tony Orlow
- Re: Well Ordering the Reals
- From: MoeBlee
- Re: Well Ordering the Reals
- From: Tony Orlow
- Re: Well Ordering the Reals
- From: Russell
- Re: Well Ordering the Reals
- From: Tony Orlow
- Re: Well Ordering the Reals
- From: David R Tribble
- Re: Well Ordering the Reals
- From: Tony Orlow
- Re: Well Ordering the Reals
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