Re: diffeomorphism
- From: A N Niel <anniel@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Sun, 27 Nov 2005 19:09:19 -0500
In article <1133135034.070549.106160@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
<liting0612@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
> I have been thought about sth like the converse of Inverse Function
> Theorem.
> If f is a diffeomorphism from U to V, f and its inverse are
> continously differentiable of all orders, then, for each p in U, will
> the derivative of f at p is one-to-one or locally invertible?
> Thanks for answering me. :)
>
False even in one dimension.
.
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